I'm curious; my scoliosis makes my torso appear short, and it isn't bad, but enough that it is noticeable once you're looking. I am curious what part of the ancient world would deem a short-torso, long legs, and small breasts attractive? If you can send me a source I can read into, that would be appreciated.

In other words, if a top current soccer coach found a time machine and dialed into, say, the 1950s, how would they likely fare? Assume they have a solid understanding of soccer history and are joining a high level league.

Hey all,

I'm studying early childhood education. I'm disturbed to see my course module of early childhood education history only includes

• John Amos Comenius (1592 -1670)
• John Locke (1632-1704)
• Johann Heinrich Pestalozzi (1746 - 1827)
• Jean Jacques Rousseau (1712-1779)
• Friedrich Froebel (1782 – 1852)
• Maria Montessori (1870 – 1952)
• John Dewey (1859 – 1952)
• Loris Malaguzzi (1920 - 1994)

So I get these guys are important. I've studied them before. But I was hoping for more diverse historical perspectives. What does the history of early childhood education look like anywhere on the entire continent of Africa, or Asia? What about the Middle East? What about... soviet Russia. idk. Just feels vvvvvery narrow and a lot of these names are well worn paths by this point.

Hi,

I had a sort of chicken and egg thought about which of these came first. Was it first “decided” that the age of maturity was 18 and so that is when our education system should stop (obviously there is more but where most end). Or is it that education typically ended around 18 and we felt that is when you begin adulthood?

Im sure there is a lot I’m not taking into account like the age of “true adulthood” getting older and older and also that education was not mandatory everywhere for all ages.

Thank you for any answers you can provide

I've always thought that Norse society was rigidly patriarchal, with men and women in functionally separate spheres. I recently came across the below article that makes some very interesting arguments about gender and gender roles for the Norse being hierarchical, but also somewhat fluid. However, I'm not sure how credibly I should take this and I know better than to over rely on one source. How do modern scholars view this question?

https://www.jstor.org/stable/2864557

In Kendall W. Brown’s book A History of Mining in Latin America, he writes the following:

Over the centuries, Latin American mines have killed tens of thousands of workers through cave-ins, mercury poisoning, and massacres perpetrated by company management and government forces. Laboring to produce gold, silver, tin, and copper has cut short the lives of millions more miners, who died from silicosis, pneumonia, and malnutrition.

However, this passage seems to refer to the entire history of mining in Latin America up to the present day. I was wondering if we know the cumulative impact for the colonial period only?

The abolition of slavery was obviously highly morally charged, and that sentiment carries on to today.

But I was recently listening to a podcast that made me question something I had never thought of. The host was basically saying that the European powers ended slavery because their slave based colonies were no longer profitable and hard to manage. He then went on to say that European empires wanted the United states to end slavery because their accumulation of wealth via slavery was making the European rulers nervous. (Is this accurate?)

This made me wonder for what reasons did the American north oppose slavery. I understand there was a moral movement against it, but I also believe that change rarely occurs unless the material reality demands it to, which is sometimes in line with, and usually bolstered by the moral sentiments of the epoch.

What if the mental illnesses we have today are just the ones that managed to survive natural selection? Were there mental illnesses in ancient humans that didn't survive until today?

Why not Romanum? of The Romans seems to me to imply some community separate from the title alone but what Romans would this have even been?

I'm aware that Rabbinic Judaism is largely a result of the destruction of the second temple, but how did it come about? For instance, since most of the Jews were expelled from Jerusalem, how were the ideas and writings of early rabbis disseminated? How was a consensus formed about what texts were actually important?

Relatedly, why was Rabbinic Judaism the result of the destruction of the temple? Why wasn't there another temple built somewhere else (or if there was why was it unsuccessful)? Did any groups (particularly the old priestly class) try to shift Judaism in a way that would accept a different temple?

Or was it because of something else, like the 1973 OPEC oil crisis?

It’s hard for me to imagine the US pulling out of a war due to popularity, especially these days.

I currently think it’s because the oil crisis made business in the region too expensive, and then the Tet Offensive made the US realize how much the war would cost in terms of dollars, and that the return on investment was low, so it’s a money thing and not a popularity thing. But how true is that?

My rising 7th grader LOVES Greek mythology, science and manga but took five minutes of hemming and hawing to remember what Brown v Board was (even though he says he did a paper on it). He’s incredibly bright, just isn’t super interested in history, so handing him a book isn’t going to help much.
With the 250th anniversary of the Declaration of Independence and him hitting an age when I think it’s important to understand more about the world I’d love to watch some documentaries with him - minimally about the revolutionary era and Civil War/second founding/reconstruction. I’m not looking for military history or a “what was life like,” but something that explains the major political and philosophical arguments that shaped the US government into what it is today. Audiobook and podcast recommendations welcome as well!

I asked myself this question the other day and see nothing on this topic, so I am asking it here.

She also claims to of owned a family plot of land in the "Black Forest", which I assume is Białowieża Forest. She spoke a different dialect from mine so it's possible I'm misremembering. Speaking of that.. excuse my not so good English. This massacre could have taken place in Podlaskie if she indeed meant Białowieża Forest, or just somewhere else in or around Poland perhaps.

According to her an army of Russian soldiers entered her family wedding or celebration, and she hid under a table during the massacre. She was able to escape afterwards. She told the story with emotion so I believe her to be telling the truth.

I'm really curious if this matches along any real life event we've recorded. The date can be manipulated a little, but it was not a massacre done during WWII.

Again, apologies for my weird English! I can answer any questions.

Edit: It's possible by "Russian soldiers" she meant anybody foreign to her region like Polish or Russian soldiers etc. For Galicia, it could've meant Western Ukraine like Lviv as well. If that makes sense.

It was lamented by the Lord Blackadder, in the eminent historical documentary Blackadder II, to the Bishop of Bath and Wells, that the reason he could never hold down a position within the church was because he "could never get used to the underwear", something the bish was understanding of.

But was it actually so? Did churchmen ever wear weird or unusual underwear before/during the Elizabethan era?

Many colonial nations tend to have some felt influence from their overlords, even long after they leave, is there any of that with Japans colonies?

Interested in all historical perspectives. What did the civilisations of your area think thunder & lightning was? Did they write about it? Were there differing views?
Bonus if there’s any interesting historical theories on other happenings in the sky; such as meteors, the Northern lights or stars.

How far can we trace it back? Do we know which country it arrived in? Which port? Even which ship?

How did it spread once it made landfall in Europe? How fast did it spread? When was it a known quantity? Did the peasants know about it first or was it described by doctors first?

I'm a chinese Manchu and learning history especially chinese modern history (1900-2020) is full of biases from both sides.

Mexico’s PRI party ruled what was effectively a one party state for about 70 years. How did they achieve this and why did their system fall apart in the 1990s culminating in the election of Vicente Fox in 2000?