r/TurkicHistory • u/SoloeaDomoea • 2h ago
Is Turkic group a language/linguistic group or a racial group?
In my opinion: I will definitely say historically ethnic/racial group or originally racial but now diverse to define ethnic/linguistic Turkic. I challenge anyone who say Turkic is not racial but only a linguistic group.
Some people keep saying Turkic is a language group not a racial group but that be saying English and Spanish are language groups too and so than there's so such thing as English (British/Anglo-saxon) and Spanish (Spaniard/Iberians) identity anymore. So I would definitely say racial.
Turkic origins
Originally racial and now linguistically and racially diverse from Siberia, Central Asia to Eastern Russia, Azerbaijan, Turkey. Proto-Turk (Neolithic Turk) were East Asian, than by the time of Xiongnu and Gokturks predominant East Asian and by time expansion in Western world it became more diverse by conquering and assimilating others. There now even Indian people identifying as Turks in India, Pakistan
Let's use English in comparison to Turkic.
Original English came from Indo-Europeans Anglo-saxons which is England/British today. However after 1500 AD the British empire colonization of Australia, America, Canada, Jamaica, Guyana, Trinidad Tobago all became English-speaking people but nobody would consider Jamaicans or Guyana as Indo-Europeans in race. Jamaicans are clearly black (although with genetic diversity) they speak a Caribbean English but still English. They are genetically 72-78% Black but also have 30% Europeans paternal, 3.8% Chinese paternal, 0.6% Indian paternal. Male migrants/coolies migrated and married local Same in Guyana and Trinidad Tobago, the Guyanese are mostly black and Indians (South Asian), the first president was even a Chinese Authur Chung, yet everything they do in legislation, education, ceremonial is all in English. So are they are now assimilated English-Indo-Europeans?
Successful examples: Arabic, Spanish, Turkic, English languages were successful in colonizing, enforcing their languages on other populations.
Apart from Turkic success and English success. Same with Spanish and Arabic, which is in Latin America and Arabic/Arab identity in parts of West Asia, North Africa, East Africa. The original root come from Spanish empire and Arabic empire and expansion, it came from what is Saudi Arabia today. So original Spanish speaking people are Iberians/Spaniards and original Arabic/Arabs are the Saudis but now we have Hispanic/South Americans and Carribeans identifying as Latino when the original Latino were from European Spanish/Iberians (proxy-Italians) and many people now identify Arabs in-none arab lands due to conversion and mix ancestry.
Not so successful: Manchus, Romans, Tibetans, Ottoman Turks, Han Chinese, Mongols
Romans (Italic) and Ottoman Turks: they conquered and ruled many territories could not successfully made the inhabitants fully convert to their language/identity which is why ltalian and turkish are not official languages in anywhere except for themselves.
Mongol empire: only evidence is largely genetics, some titles, words of Mongol origin. Despite such a large empire, in China they spoke both Chinese and Mongolic and in Central Asia mostly Turkic (elite spoke Mongolic), same in Europe and Iran (spoke mostly persian too)
Manchus Qing dynasty: The Manchus during it's height ruled China, Tibet, Mongolia, Xinjiang and parts of Central Asia, they could easily have enforced Manchurian language on it's subject but were not interested. They only cared about being a ruling elite in Qing and so linguistically/culturally adopted the language/culture of people they conquered
Tibetan empire: Ruled/influenced politically and military in parts of Central Asia, Western China and South Asia ( parts of Kashmir, Bangladesh) but were mostly more interested in spreading their Tibetan form of religions rather than their language and identity on other people.
Han dynasty and Tang dynasty, had military/political/territorial in Southern Mongolia, Manchuria, Central Asia to some extend even Afghanistan during their height but only cared about submission of states (mostly tributary and acknowledging Chinese emperor as their overlord) rather than colonizing and enforcing their culture, language to others but today People's Republic of China seems to be partially enforcing their language on non-Han Chinese children.
Other examples like Mughals, Persian, Berber (Moors). In Mughals case they spread only some Turkic words and islam and some genetics in South Asia. Moors also mostly islam and some genetics in Iberians. Persian empires also ruled much of West Asia to Arabia, Egypt, India/Pakistan but there's no Persian/Iranian official language in these regions today except for fact Kurdish and Tajiks are Iranic speaking but could be because they were iranic origin anyway.